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1.  Comparison of Quantitative and Qualitative Tests for Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency 
A barrier to eliminating Plasmodium vivax malaria is inadequate treatment of infected patients. 8-Aminoquinoline–based drugs clear the parasite; however, people with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency are at risk for hemolysis from these drugs. Understanding the performance of G6PD deficiency tests is critical for patient safety. Two quantitative assays and two qualitative tests were evaluated. The comparison of quantitative assays gave a Pearson correlation coefficient of 0.7585 with significant difference in mean G6PD activity, highlighting the need to adhere to a single reference assay. Both qualitative tests had high sensitivity and negative predictive value at a cutoff G6PD value of 40% of normal activity if interpreted conservatively and performed under laboratory conditions. The performance of both tests dropped at a cutoff level of 45%. Cytochemical staining of specimens confirmed that heterozygous females with > 50% G6PD-deficient cells can seem normal by phenotypic tests.
PMCID: PMC4183416  PMID: 25071003
4.  Bis(2-amino-4-phenyl-1,3-thia­zol-3-ium) tetra­chlorido­palladate(II) 
The title compound, (C9H9N2S)2[PdCl4], consists of two monoprotonated 2-amino-4-phenyl-1,3-thia­zole molecules and one tetra­chlorido­palladate anion. The organic molecules exhibit a dihedral angle between the main rings planes of 31.82 (9)°. In the anion, the PdII atom is located on a crystallographic centre of symmetry with a square-planar geometry. In the crystal, the anions and cations are connected through bifurcated N—H⋯Cl hydrogen bonds, and these inter­actions lead to hydrogen-bonded tapes of cations and anions along [100].
PMCID: PMC4158524  PMID: 25249879
crystal structure
5.  Rapid Wuchereria bancrofti-Specific Antigen Wb123-Based IgG4 Immunoassays as Tools for Surveillance following Mass Drug Administration Programs on Lymphatic Filariasis 
The Global Programme to Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis has an urgent need for rapid assays to detect ongoing transmission of lymphatic filariasis (LF) following multiple rounds of mass drug administration (MDA). Current WHO guidelines support using the antigen card immunochromatographic test (ICT), which detects active filarial infection but does not detect early exposure to LF. Recent studies found that antibody-based assays better serve this function. In the present study, two tests, a rapid IgG4 enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and a lateral-flow strip immunoassay, were developed based on the highly sensitive and specific Wuchereria bancrofti antigen Wb123. A comparison of W. bancrofti-infected and -uninfected patients (with or without other helminth infections) demonstrated that both tests had high sensitivities and specificities (93 and 97% [ELISA] and 92 and 96% [strips], respectively). When the W. bancrofti-uninfected group was separated into those with other filarial/helminth infections (i.e., onchocerciasis, loiasis, and strongyloidiasis) and those who were parasite uninfected, the specificities of the assays varied between 91 and 100%. In addition, the geometric mean response by ELISA of W. bancrofti-infected patients was significantly higher than the response of those without W. bancrofti infection (P < 0.0001). Furthermore, the Wb123 ELISA and the lateral-flow strips had high positive and negative predictive values, giving valuable information on the size of survey population needed to be reasonably certain whether or not transmission is ongoing. These highly sensitive and specific IgG4 tests to the W. bancrofti Wb123 protein give every indication that they will serve as useful tools for post-MDA monitoring.
PMCID: PMC3754496  PMID: 23740923
6.  G6PD testing in support of treatment and elimination of malaria: recommendations for evaluation of G6PD tests 
Malaria Journal  2013;12:391.
Malaria elimination will be possible only with serious attempts to address asymptomatic infection and chronic infection by both Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax. Currently available drugs that can completely clear a human of P. vivax (known as “radical cure”), and that can reduce transmission of malaria parasites, are those in the 8-aminoquinoline drug family, such as primaquine. Unfortunately, people with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency risk having severe adverse reactions if exposed to these drugs at certain doses. G6PD deficiency is the most common human enzyme defect, affecting approximately 400 million people worldwide.
Scaling up radical cure regimens will require testing for G6PD deficiency, at two levels: 1) the individual level to ensure safe case management, and 2) the population level to understand the risk in the local population to guide Plasmodium vivax treatment policy. Several technical and operational knowledge gaps must be addressed to expand access to G6PD deficiency testing and to ensure that a patient’s G6PD status is known before deciding to administer an 8-aminoquinoline-based drug.
In this report from a stakeholder meeting held in Thailand on October 4 and 5, 2012, G6PD testing in support of radical cure is discussed in detail. The focus is on challenges to the development and evaluation of G6PD diagnostic tests, and on challenges related to the operational aspects of implementing G6PD testing in support of radical cure. The report also describes recommendations for evaluation of diagnostic tests for G6PD deficiency in support of radical cure.
PMCID: PMC3830439  PMID: 24188096
7.  Cryopreservation of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase activity inside red blood cells: developing a specimen repository in support of development and evaluation of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency tests 
Malaria Journal  2013;12:286.
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is a common human enzyme deficiency. It is characterized by abnormally low levels of G6PD activity. Individuals with G6PD deficiency are at risk of undergoing acute haemolysis when exposed to 8‒aminoquinoline-based drugs, such as primaquine. For this reason it is imperative to identify individuals with G6PD deficiency prior to administering these anti-malarial drugs. There is a need for the development and evaluation of point-of-care G6PD deficiency screening tests suitable for areas of the developing world where malarial treatments are frequently administered. The development and evaluation of new G6PD tests will be greatly assisted with the availability of specimen repositories.
Cryopreservation of erythrocytes was evaluated as a means to preserve G6PD activity. Blood specimens from 31 patients including ten specimens with normal G6PD activity, three with intermediate activity, and 18 with deficient activity were cryopreserved for up to six months.
Good correlation in G6PD activity between fresh and cryopreserved specimens (R2 = 0.95). The cryopreserved specimens show an overall small drop in mean G6PD activity of 0.23 U/g Hb (P=0.23). Cytochemical staining showed that intracellular G6PD activity distribution within the red blood cell populations is preserved during cryopreservation. Furthermore, the mosaic composition of red blood cells in heterozygous women is also preserved for six months or more. The fluorescent spot and the BinaxNOW qualitative tests for G6PD deficiency also showed high concordance in G6PD status determination between cryopreserved specimens and fresh specimens.
A methodology for establishing a specimen panel for evaluation of G6PD tests is described. The approach is similar to that used in several malaria research facilities for the cryopreservation of parasites in clinical specimens and axenic cultures. Specimens stored in this manner will aid both the development and evaluation of current and emerging G6PD tests. The availability of G6PD tests is a critical bottleneck to broader access to drugs that confer radical cure of Plasmodium vivax, a requirement for elimination of malaria.
PMCID: PMC3765399  PMID: 23961874
Plasmodium vivax; Haemoglobinopathy; Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase; Malaria; Diagnostic tests; Point-of-care
8.  Extended Result Reading Window in Lateral Flow Tests Detecting Exposure to Onchocerca volvulus: A New Technology to Improve Epidemiological Surveillance Tools 
PLoS ONE  2013;8(7):e69231.
Onchocerciasis is a neglected tropical disease caused by infection with the parasite Onchocerca volvulus (Ov). An estimated 180 million people are at risk for Ov infection, and 37 million people are infected, mostly in Africa. A lateral flow-based assay to detect human IgG4 antibodies to the Ov-specific antigen Ov-16 was developed as a rapid tool to detect exposure to Ov. The test, when performed on 449 sera specimens from patients with microfiladermia and Ov-negative patients, has a sensitivity of 89.1% (95% confidence interval: 86.2%–92.0%), and specificity of 97% (95% confidence interval: 95.4%–98.6%). Because the intended use of the test is for surveillance, it is highly desirable to have a stable, long-lasting result. An extended read window is thus desirable for a high-volume, busy workflow and facilitates post-surveillance quality assurance. The main restriction on achieving an extended read window for this assay was the erythrocyte lysis that can alter the signal-to-noise ratio, especially in those with low IgG4 levels (weak positives). We describe a test housing that incorporates a user-independent feature driven by assay fluid and an expanding wick that detaches the blood separation membrane from the nitrocellulose used in the assay, but before hemolysis occurs. We demonstrated material functionality at extreme operational conditions (37°C, 80% relative humidity) and a read window of a minimum of 70 days. The fluid-driven assay device performs equally as well with whole blood as with plasma, as demonstrated with 100 spiked clinical specimens (with a correlation coefficient of 0.96). We show a novel, inexpensive, and simple approach to actuating the detachment of the blood separation membrane from the nitrocellulose test with no impact on the performance characteristics of the test.
PMCID: PMC3720650  PMID: 23935960
9.  Post-extraction stabilization of HIV viral RNA for quantitative molecular tests 
Journal of Virological Methods  2012;182(1-2):104-110.
Two approaches to stabilize viral nucleic acid in processed clinical specimens were evaluated. HIV-1 RNA extracted from clinical specimens was stabilized in a dry matrix in a commercial product (RNAstable, Biomatrica, San Diego, CA, USA) and in a reverse-transcription reaction mixture in liquid form as cDNA. As few as 145 HIV-1 genome copies of viral RNA are reliably stabilized by RNAstable at 45°C for 92 days and in the cDNA format at 45°C for 7 days as determined by real-time PCR. With RNAstable the R2 at days 1, 7, and 92 were 0.888, 0.871, and 0.943 when compared to baseline viral load values. The cDNA generated from the same clinical specimens was highly stable with an R2 value of 0.762 when comparing viral load determinations at day 7 to baseline values. In conclusion viral RNA stabilized in a dry RNAstable matrix is highly stable for long periods of time at high temperatures across a substantial dynamic range. Viral RNA signal can also be stabilized in liquid in the form of cDNA for limited periods of time. Methods that reduce reliance on the cold chain and preserve specimen integrity are critical for extending the reach of molecular testing to low-resource settings. Products based on anhydrobiosis, such as the RNAstable should be evaluated further to support viral pathogen diagnosis.
PMCID: PMC3334433  PMID: 22433512
RNA virus; RNA stability; molecular diagnosis; viral load; point-of-care
10.  Opportunities and Challenges for Cost-Efficient Implementation of New Point-of-Care Diagnostics for HIV and Tuberculosis 
The Journal of Infectious Diseases  2012;205(Suppl 2):S169-S180.
Stakeholders agree that supporting high-quality diagnostics is essential if we are to continue to make strides in the fight against human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and tuberculosis. Despite the need to strengthen existing laboratory infrastructure, which includes expanding and developing new laboratories, there are clear diagnostic needs where conventional laboratory support is insufficient. Regarding HIV, rapid point-of-care (POC) testing for initial HIV diagnosis has been successful, but several needs remain. For tuberculosis, several new diagnostic tests have recently been endorsed by the World Health Organization, but a POC test remains elusive. Human immunodeficiency virus and tuberculosis are coendemic in many high prevalence locations, making parallel diagnosis of these conditions an important consideration. Despite its clear advantages, POC testing has important limitations, and laboratory-based testing will continue to be an important component of future diagnostic networks. Ideally, a strategic deployment plan should be used to define where and how POC technologies can be most efficiently and cost effectively integrated into diagnostic algorithms and existing test networks prior to widespread scale-up. In this fashion, the global community can best harness the tremendous capacity of novel diagnostics in fighting these 2 scourges.
PMCID: PMC3334507  PMID: 22457286
11.  Perspectives on Introduction and Implementation of New Point-of-Care Diagnostic Tests 
The Journal of Infectious Diseases  2012;205(Suppl 2):S181-S190.
In recent years, there has been significant investment from both the private and public sectors in the development of diagnostic technologies to meet the need for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and tuberculosis testing in low-resource settings. Future investments should ensure that the most appropriate technologies are adopted in settings where they will have a sustainable impact. Achieving these aims requires the involvement of many stakeholders, as their needs, operational constraints, and priorities are often distinct. Here, we discuss these considerations from different perspectives representing those of various stakeholders involved in the development, introduction, and implementation of diagnostic tests. We also discuss some opportunities to address these considerations.
PMCID: PMC3334510  PMID: 22402038
12.  Clinical subtypes of anterocollis in parkinsonian syndromes 
Journal of the neurological sciences  2011;315(1-2):100-103.
Disproportionate anterocollis is a debilitating condition which occurs in the later stages of parkinsonian syndromes and for which there is no effective therapy. Multiple hypotheses have been proposed to explain its underlying etiology, including myopathy of the cervical extensors, and dystonia of the cervical flexors.
We examined the records of 39 patients (8 prospectively) with anterocollis and parkinsonian syndromes to explore demographics, historical and clinical data, findings from electromyography and response to therapies. We classified our patients based on whether or not they were weak on neck extension and also based on primary diagnosis (PD vs atypical parkinsonian syndrome). Demographic, clinical, historical and EMG features are reported for each group.
There were no significant demographic differences between clinical subtypes, or primary diagnosis. Electromyographic (EMG) findings demonstrated myopathic changes in both groups, although they were more prominent in the group which was weak in extension. Historical features were similar between groups except for dopamine agonist use, which was more common in the myopathic subgroup (p = 0.02). There were no other significant clinical differences between clinical subtypes or primary diagnosis with the exception that patients with atypical parkinsonian syndromes had more advanced motor symptoms.
We conclude that anterocollis is a heterogeneous condition in which at least two distinct subtypes exist. Recognizing these subtypes may help guide therapy and future research.
PMCID: PMC3495550  PMID: 22133481
Anterocollis; Head drop syndrome; Parkinson’s disease; Dystonia; Myopathy
13.  Non-human primate FOG develops with advanced parkinsonism induced by MPTP Treatment 
Experimental neurology  2012;237(2):464-469.
Freezing of gait (FOG) is a debilitating feature of Parkinson’s disease (PD) and other forms of parkinsonism. The anatomical or pathophysiological correlates are poorly understood largely due to the lack of a well-established animal model. Here we studied whether FOG is reproduced in the non-human primate (NHP) model of PD. 1-methyl-4-phenyl-1,2,3,6-tetrahydropyridine (MPTP)-treated monkeys (Genus Macaca, n=29) were examined for the development of FOG, and the leg movements were recorded with accelerometry. The relationships between developing FOG and the animals’ characteristics, the MPTP treatments, and the modeled outcomes were determined. In parkinsonian monkeys FOG developed frequently (48%) manifesting similar characteristics to those seen in PD patients. In addition, FOG episodes in the monkey were accompanied by leg trembling with the typical duration (2–10 s) and frequency (~7 Hz). The development of NHP FOG was significantly associated with the severity of parkinsonism, as shown by high motor disability scores (≥20) and levodopa-induced dyskinesia scores (p=0.01 and p=0.04, respectively). Differences in demographics and MPTP treatments (doses, treatment duration, etc.) had no influence on NHP FOG occurrence, with the exception of gender that showed FOG predominance in males (p=0.03). The unique features of FOG in PD can be replicated in severely parkinsonian macaques, and this represents the first description of a FOG animal model.
PMCID: PMC3582410  PMID: 22967858
Freezing of gait; MPTP; Animal model; Non-human primate; Dopamine
14.  Functional Implications of Species Differences in the Size and Morphology of the Isthmo Optic Nucleus (ION) in Birds 
PLoS ONE  2012;7(5):e37816.
In birds, there is a retinofugal projection from the brain to the retina originating from the isthmo optic nucleus (ION) in the midbrain. Despite a large number of anatomical, physiological and histochemical studies, the function of this retinofugal system remains unclear. Several functions have been proposed including: gaze stabilization, pecking behavior, dark adaptation, shifting attention, and detection of aerial predators. This nucleus varies in size and organization among some species, but the relative size and morphology of the ION has not been systematically studied. Here, we present a comparison of the relative size and morphology of the ION in 81 species of birds, representing 17 different orders. Our results show that several orders of birds, besides those previously reported, have a large, well-organized ION, including: hummingbirds, woodpeckers, coots and allies, and kingfishers. At the other end of the spectrum, parrots, herons, waterfowl, owls and diurnal raptors have relatively small ION volumes. ION also appears to be absent or unrecognizable is several taxa, including one of the basal avian groups, the tinamous, which suggests that the ION may have evolved only in the more modern group of birds, Neognathae. Finally, we demonstrate that evolutionary changes in the relative size and the cytoarchitectonic organization of ION have occurred largely independent of phylogeny. The large relative size of the ION in orders with very different lifestyles and feeding behaviors suggest there is no clear association with pecking behavior or predator detection. Instead, our results suggest that the ION is more complex and enlarged in birds that have eyes that are emmetropic in some parts of the visual field and myopic in others. We therefore posit that the ION is involved in switching attention between two parts of the retina i.e. from an emmetropic to a myopic part of the retina.
PMCID: PMC3362605  PMID: 22666395
15.  Toward Low-Cost Affinity Reagents: Lyophilized Yeast-scFv Probes Specific for Pathogen Antigens 
PLoS ONE  2012;7(2):e32042.
The generation of affinity reagents, usually monoclonal antibodies, remains a critical bottleneck in biomedical research and diagnostic test development. Recombinant antibody-like proteins such as scFv have yet to replace traditional monoclonal antibodies in antigen detection applications, in large part because of poor performance of scFv in solution. To address this limitation, we have developed assays that use whole yeast cells expressing scFv on their surfaces (yeast-scFv) in place of soluble purified scFv or traditional monoclonal antibodies. In this study, a nonimmune library of human scFv displayed on the surfaces of yeast cells was screened for clones that bind to recombinant cyst proteins of Entamoeba histolytica, an enteric pathogen of humans. Selected yeast-scFv clones were stabilized by lyophilization and used in detection assay formats in which the yeast-scFv served as solid support-bound monoclonal antibodies. Specific binding of antigen to the yeast-scFv was detected by staining with rabbit polyclonal antibodies. In flow cytometry-based assays, lyophilized yeast-scFv reagents retained full binding activity and specificity for their cognate antigens after 4 weeks of storage at room temperature in the absence of desiccants or stabilizers. Because flow cytometry is not available to all potential assay users, an immunofluorescence assay was also developed that detects antigen with similar sensitivity and specificity. Antigen-specific whole-cell yeast-scFv reagents can be selected from nonimmune libraries in 2–3 weeks, produced in vast quantities, and packaged in lyophilized form for extended shelf life. Lyophilized yeast-scFv show promise as low cost, renewable alternatives to monoclonal antibodies for diagnosis and research.
PMCID: PMC3282784  PMID: 22363793
16.  HIV-1 Gag p17 presented as virus-like particles on the E2 scaffold from Geobacillus stearothermophilus induces sustained humoral and cellular immune responses in the absence of IFNγ production by CD4+ T cells 
Virology  2010;407(2):296-305.
We have constructed stable virus-like particles displaying the HIV-1 Gag(p17) protein as an N-terminal fusion with an engineered protein domain from the Geobacillus stearothermophilus pyruvate dehydrogenase subunit E2. Mice immunized with the Gag(p17)-E2 60-mer scaffold particles mounted a strong and sustained antibody response. Antibodies directed to Gag(p17) were boosted significantly with additional immunizations, while anti-E2 responses reached a plateau. The isotype of the induced antibodies was biased towards IgG1, and the E2-primed CD4+ T cells did not secrete IFNγ. Using transgenic mouse model systems, we demonstrated that CD8+ T cells primed with E2 particles were able to exert lytic activity and produce IFNγ. These results show that the E2 scaffold represents a powerful vaccine delivery system for whole antigenic proteins or polyepitope engineered proteins, evoking antibody production and antigen specific CTL activity even in the absence of IFNγ-producing CD4+ T cells.
PMCID: PMC3275809  PMID: 20850858
Virus-like particles; HIV; vaccine; E2 scaffold; Gag(p17)
17.  Outpatient Upper Respiratory Tract Viral Infections in Children with Malaria Symptoms in Western Kenya 
A cross-sectional study was performed in children 5 through 10 years of age presenting to outpatient clinics in Nyanza Province, Kenya, in which nasal swab and blood specimens were collected during the high malaria transmission season. Patients presenting with malaria-like symptoms within 4 days of fever onset were enrolled in the study. Plasmodium parasitemia was determined by blood smear microscopy. Nasal swabs were screened for a panel of respiratory viruses by polymerase chain reaction. Influenza A, rhinoviruses, and other respiratory viruses were detected in 18%, 26%, and 12% of 197 specimens, respectively. Four of 36 patients with influenza A had a positive malaria blood slide, compared with 20 of 52 patients with rhinovirus. A significant burden of disease caused by influenza A in febrile children during the study period was observed, highlighting the need for further research into the burden of influenza disease in regions where malaria is holoendemic.
PMCID: PMC2963960  PMID: 21036828
18.  Cost analysis of centralized viral load testing for antiretroviral therapy monitoring in Nicaragua, a low-HIV prevalence, low-resource setting 
HIV viral load testing as a component of antiretroviral therapy monitoring is costly. Understanding the full costs and the major sources of inefficiency associated with viral load testing is critical for optimizing the systems and technologies that support the testing process. The objective of our study was to estimate the costs associated with viral load testing performed for antiretroviral therapy monitoring to both patients and the public healthcare system in a low-HIV prevalence, low-resource country.
A detailed cost analysis was performed to understand the costs involved in each step of performing a viral load test in Nicaragua, from initial specimen collection to communication of the test results to each patient's healthcare provider. Data were compiled and cross referenced from multiple information sources: laboratory records, regional surveillance centre records, and scheduled interviews with the key healthcare providers responsible for HIV patient care in five regions of the country.
The total average cost of performing a viral load test in Nicaragua varied by region, ranging from US$99.01 to US$124.58, the majority of which was at the laboratory level: $88.73 to $97.15 per specimen, depending on batch size. The average cost to clinics at which specimens were collected ranged from $3.31 to $20.92, depending on the region. The average cost per patient for transportation, food, lodging and lost income ranged from $3.70 to $14.93.
The quantitative viral load test remains the single most expensive component of the process. For the patient, the distance of his or her residence from the specimen collection site is a large determinant of cost. Importantly, the efficiency of results reporting has a large impact on the cost per result delivered to the clinician and utility of the result for patient monitoring. Detailed cost analysis can identify opportunities for removing barriers to effective antiretroviral therapy monitoring programmes in limited-resource countries with low HIV prevalence.
PMCID: PMC2992476  PMID: 21054866
19.  Maternal Malaria and Gravidity Interact to Modify Infant Susceptibility to Malaria 
PLoS Medicine  2005;2(12):e407.
In endemic areas, placental malaria due to Plasmodium falciparum is most frequent and severe in first-time mothers, and increases the risk of infant mortality in their offspring. Placental malaria may increase the susceptibility of infants to malaria parasitemia, but evidence for this effect is inconclusive.
Methods and Findings
During 2002–2004, we monitored parasitemia in 453 infants, including 69 who were born to mothers with placental malaria, in a region of northeastern Tanzania where malaria transmission is intense. We used a Cox proportional hazards model to evaluate the time from birth to first parasitemia, and a generalized estimating equations logistic regression model to evaluate risk of any parasitemia throughout the first year of life. Compared with infants whose mothers did not have placental malaria at delivery (“PM-negative”), offspring of mothers with placental malaria at delivery (“PM-positive”) were 41% more likely to experience their first parasitemia at a younger age (adjusted hazard ratio [AHR] = 1.41, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.01–1.99). The odds of parasitemia throughout infancy were strongly modified by the interaction between placental malaria and gravidity (p for interaction = 0.008, Type 3 likelihood ratio test). Offspring of PM-negative primigravidae had lower odds of parasitemia during infancy (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] = 0.67, 95% CI 0.50–0.91) than offspring of PM-negative multigravidae, and offspring of PM-positive primigravidae had the lowest odds (AOR = 0.21, 95% CI 0.09–0.47). In contrast, offspring of PM-positive multigravidae had significantly higher odds of parasitemia (AOR = 1.59, 95% CI 1.16–2.17).
Although parasitemia is more frequent in primigravid than multigravid women, the converse is true in their offspring, especially in offspring of PM-positive women. While placental malaria is known to increase mortality risk for first-born infants, it surprisingly reduced their risk of parasitemia in this study. Placental malaria of multigravidae, on the other hand, is a strong risk factor for parasitemia during infancy, and therefore preventive antimalarial chemotherapy administered to multigravid women close to term may reduce the frequency of parasitemia in their offspring.
Children of mothers with placental malaria were more likely to exhibit parasitemia within their first year. First-born children were at a lower risk, regardless of whether their mothers had placental malaria.
PMCID: PMC1277932  PMID: 16259531
20.  Dysphagia Lusoria Caused by an Aberrant Right Subclavian Artery 
Texas Heart Institute Journal  2004;31(2):168-171.
A 36-year-old, otherwise-healthy woman with a 6-year history of progressive dysphagia underwent an esophagogram that revealed an oblique extrinsic defect with an inferior-to-superior (left-to-right) course consistent with an aberrant right subclavian artery. An aortogram confirmed the diagnosis of aberrant right subclavian artery.
She underwent surgical repair, tolerated the procedure well, and was discharged home, symptom free, on postoperative day 3. We found that the right supraclavicular approach provides good exposure and avoids the morbidity of the classically described approach via a median sternotomy or thoracotomy.
PMCID: PMC427379  PMID: 15212130
Aorta, thoracic/abnormalities; aortic arch syndromes/surgery; constriction, pathologic; deglutition disorders/etiology; esophageal stenosis/etiology; subclavian artery/abnormalities
21.  Dyskinetoplastic Trypanosoma brucei Contains Functional Editing Complexes 
Eukaryotic Cell  2003;2(3):569-577.
Mitochondrial pre-mRNAs undergo posttranscriptional RNA editing as directed by small guide RNAs (gRNAs) to produce functional mRNAs in kinetoplastid protozoa. The pre-mRNAs and gRNAs are encoded in the maxicircle and minicircle components, respectively, of the kinetoplastid mitochondrial DNA (kDNA), and editing is catalyzed by a multienzyme protein complex. Trypanosoma evansi AnTat3/3, which lacks maxicircles but retains a single class of minicircles, and a dyskinetoplastic mutant of Trypanosoma brucei EATRO164, which is devoid of kDNA, were both shown to retain genes and proteins for the editing complex. The proteins are present in complexes that immunoprecipitate and sediment indistinguishably from wild-type complexes. The complexes catalyze precleaved insertion and deletion editing as well as full-round deletion editing in vitro. Thus, mutants which lack the natural substrates for RNA editing and all or most gRNAs retain editing complexes that contain the four primary catalytic activities of editing and function in editing, at least in vitro. Therefore neither pre-mRNA nor gRNA is required to form functional RNA-editing complexes.
PMCID: PMC161453  PMID: 12796302
22.  Basolateral and canalicular transport of xenobiotics in the hepatocyte: A review 
Cytotechnology  2000;34(3):225-235.
The molecular and functional characterization of severalproteins involved in the uptake and excretion of xenobioticsand endogenous compounds in the hepatocyte has been achievedthrough intensive research conducted in the past few years.These studies have lead to the identification of specificmembrane transporters located in the basolateral andcanalicular membrane domains of the hepatocyte. The organicanion-transporting polypeptide (OATP), present in thebasolateral membrane of the hepatocyte, is responsible for thetranslocation of xenobiotics from the sinusoidal space into thehepatocyte. Once inside the cell, unconjugated neutral, anionicand cationic xenobiotics can be secreted into bile by themultidrug-resistance P-glycoprotein 1 (MDR1). Conjugatedxenobiotics (e.g. glucuronides and glutathione conjugates) aresecreted into bile by the canalicular multispecific organicanion transporter (cMOAT). Other transporters play keyphysiological roles, including the basolateral uptake of bilesalts (sodium-taurocholate cotransporter, NTCP) and thesecretion into bile of conjugated and unconjugated bile salts(bile salt export pump, BSEP) and phospholipids (MDR2).Experimental approaches used to investigate the role of thebasolateral and canalicular transporters in the hepatocyte haveincluded both in vivo and in vitro models. Animalmodels lacking canalicular transporters include the`hyperbilirubinemic' rats (Groningen-Yellow (GY), Eisaihyperbilirubinemic (EHB) and TR- rats), which aredeficient in the cMOAT protein, and `knock-out' mice, lackingeither the MDR1 or MDR2 transporter. Although no animal modelsare currently available for the study of basolateraltransporters, their function has been conveniently investigatedthrough heterologous expression in Xenopus laevis oocytesand also with basolateral membrane vesicles isolated fromhepatocytes. The total number of basolateral and canaliculartransport proteins present in the hepatocyte is still unknown,but current knowledge indicates that there are at least fourpresent in the basolateral membrane and five in the canaliculardomain. The present review focuses on the current knowledgeabout the most relevant hepatocyte transporters involved in theuptake of foreign and endogenous compounds from the sinusoidalspace and in their active secretion into bile. The first partof the review deals with the basolateral (sinusoidal) transportof organic anions, and the major basolateral transporters (e.g.NTCP, OATP) are described here, both in terms of their knownbiochemistry and physiology. In the second part of the review,the canalicular (apical) transport of organic anions isdiscussed and the biochemistry and physiological role of MDR1,MDR2, cMOAT and BSEP is described in detail. The concludingremarks point out areas of research that need to be addressedin order to answer important questions that still remainunanswered in this important field of study.
PMCID: PMC3449628  PMID: 19003398
basolateral transporters; canalicular transporters; multidrug resistance; xenobiotics transport
23.  Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 deficiency prolongs survival and protects against the development of pulmonary inflammation during murine lupus. 
Journal of Clinical Investigation  1997;100(5):963-971.
One of the characteristic features of the lupus syndrome in humans and mice is the organ-specific accumulation of leukocytes within a variety of different tissues; however, the etiology of this phenomenon remains unclear. The work presented here determined the role of intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)-1 in the development of pulmonary leukocyte accumulation by generating MRL/MpJ-Faslpr mice that are genetically deficient in this critical adhesion molecule. Interestingly, these MRL/MpJ-Faslpr ICAM-1 knockout mice exhibit prolonged survival times compared to littermates expressing ICAM-1. We have determined that lack of ICAM-1 completely abrogates the development of pulmonary inflammation but does not prevent the development of autoantibodies, lymphadenopathy, and glomerulonephritis. Furthermore, the lack of pulmonary inflammation was found to be due to decreased migration of leukocytes to the lung rather than decreased in situ proliferation of cells.
PMCID: PMC508271  PMID: 9276713
24.  Eosinophil recruitment to the lung in a murine model of allergic inflammation. The role of T cells, chemokines, and adhesion receptors. 
Journal of Clinical Investigation  1996;98(10):2332-2345.
Eosinophil accumulation is a distinctive feature of lung allergic inflammation. Here, we have used a mouse model of OVA (ovalbumin)-induced pulmonary eosinophilia to study the cellular and molecular mechanisms for this selective recruitment of eosinophils to the airways. In this model there was an early accumulation of infiltrating monocytes/macrophages in the lung during the OVA treatment, whereas the increase in infiltrating T-lymphocytes paralleled the accumulation of eosinophils. The kinetics of accumulation of these three leukocyte subtypes correlated with the levels of mRNA expression of the chemokines monocyte chemotactic peptide-1/JE, eotaxin, and RANTES (regulated upon activation in normal T cells expressed and secreted), suggesting their involvement in the recruitment of these leukocytes. Furthermore, blockade of eotaxin with specific antibodies in vivo reduced the accumulation of eosinophils in the lung in response to OVA by half. Mature CD4+ T-lymphocytes were absolutely required for OVA-induced eosinophil accumulation since lung eosinophilia was prevented in CD4+-deficient mice. However, these cells were neither the main producers of the major eosinophilic chemokines eotaxin, RANTES, or MIP-1alpha, nor did they regulate the expression of these chemokines. Rather, the presence of CD4+ T cells was necessary for enhancement of VCAM-1 (vascular cell adhesion molecule-1) expression in the lung during allergic inflammation induced by the OVA treatment. In support of this, mice genetically deficient for VCAM-1 and intercellular adhesion molecule-1 failed to develop pulmonary eosinophilia. Selective eosinophilic recruitment during lung allergic inflammation results from a sequential accumulation of certain leukocyte types, particularly T cells, and relies on the presence of both eosinophilic chemoattractants and adhesion receptors.
PMCID: PMC507684  PMID: 8941651
25.  Cloning of the human eosinophil chemoattractant, eotaxin. Expression, receptor binding, and functional properties suggest a mechanism for the selective recruitment of eosinophils. 
Journal of Clinical Investigation  1996;97(3):604-612.
The CC chemokine eotaxin, identified in guinea pigs and also recently in mice, may be a key element for the selective recruitment of eosinophils to certain inflamed tissues. Using a partial mouse eotaxin CDNA probe, the human eotaxin gene was cloned and found to be 61.8 and 63.2% identical at the amino acid level to guinea pig and mouse eotaxin. Human eotaxin protein was a strong and specific eosinophil chemoattractant in vitro and was an effective eosinophil chemoattractant when injected into the skin of a rhesus monkey. Radiolabeled eotaxin was used to identify a high affinity receptor on eosinophils (0.52 nM Kd), expressed at 4.8 x 10(4) sites per cell. This receptor also bound RANTES and monocyte chemotactic protein-3 with lower affinity, but not macrophage inflammatory protein-1 alpha. Eotaxin could desensitize calcium responses of eosinophils to RANTES and monocyte chemotactic protein-3, although RANTES was able to only partially desensitize eosinophil calcium responses to eotaxin. Immunohistochemistry on human nasal polyp with antieotaxin mAbs showed that certain leukocytes as well as respiratory epithelium were intensely immunoreactive, and eosinophil infiltration occurred at sites of eotaxin upregulation. Thus eotaxin in humans is a potent and selective eosinophil chemoattractant that is expressed by a variety cell types in certain inflammatory conditions.
PMCID: PMC507095  PMID: 8609214

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